Did Jesus Claim to be God?

I had a teacher today in class say some stuff that I didn’t think was true. but before I refute him I wanted to make sure that I knew what I was talking about.

1. What does the word messiah actually mean in new testament times?
2. I was wondering if in the gospels anywhere did Jesus say that he was the Son of God or reference himself as such?

 
First, a couple of words of advice:

Be respectful when you disagree with your prof.  His information is limited and his views may be very personal to him.  Tell him that you were thinking seriously about what he said the other day and wanted to follow up with his thoughts. Make your responses in the form of a question… “I was wondering what you thought about…”  “I wondered if it was ok for me to share a couple of thoughts on what you mentioned…”   If you are going to confront his inaccuracies, make sure that you are a good student in the class too.

The Bible is very clear that we are to respect our authorities, even the harsh ones.  Let us remember this as a vital part of our witness!  To defend God while disobeying His word is childishness.  (Romans 13, 1 Peter 2:18-20)

1.  There is a lot of the Bible that makes much more sense from a Jewish perspective, as I mention below.  The concept of a “messiah” was not odd – it just meant someone anointed.  A King, prophet, judge or others could be anointed.  However, the Jews were also looking expectantly not just for “a messiah” but also for “The Messiah.”  There was another coming along the lines of Abraham, Moses, David, Elijah, etc.  Who was going to set the people free (their assumption was from Roman rule)  Many people might be messiahs, but there would be only one “The Messiah.”  Here is the simple meanings of the words:

Old Testament (Hebrew):
mashiyach (maw-shee’-akh); from OT:4886; anointed; usually a consecrated person (as a king, priest, or saint); specifically, the Messiah:

In the New Testament (Greek) , either the Hebrew word is used again, or the word “Christos” which also means “anointed one” – the clear indication in both is “Chosen.”
(ref: Biblesoft’s New Exhaustive Strong’s Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright (c) 1994, Biblesoft and International Bible Translators, Inc.)

2. In Luke 22:70, in a court of law, Jesus answers this question with an affirmative answer… this is the only place where Jesus is clear and implicit on the subject to the American mind – however, this is very significant!  This is a court of law!
Otherwise,  He is vastly clear on it to anyone who understands the Jewish mindset (the one He was living in) when He declared Himself in John 8:33-58 – that is why in verse 59 they try to kill Him. To say “I am God” is one thing, but to say “Before Abraham was, I AM” to the Jew is more clear who He is claiming to be.

Anyone who says that Jesus never claimed to be God does not know scripture, especially not from the right mindset.

Also, check the clarity of the Jesus’ teachings in Luke 20 – that parable of the vineyard owner. And Matt 11:27.  Finally, in the healing of the paralytic lowered through the roof of  Mark 2:1-12, Jesus does not deny that “only God can forgive sins” but instead shows that He has the power to forgive sins!  I believe the implication is clear.

Incidentally, Peter, Mark, a centurion at the crucifixion, Gabriel, John the Baptist, the apostle John, and various unclean spirits all testify to it.  None of them are corrected and all are seen as reliable sources of this information for different reasons.  Between them all, pretty much all the bases are covered!

 

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